[B-Greek] 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA, 1 Jn 4:2 SARKI

Vasileios Tsialas tsialas78 at hotmail.com
Fri Mar 12 11:27:41 EST 2010


Eph 6:12, instead of 6:16, was the right
verse.

 

I would like to add that it is true that
Paul many times uses the term σαρξ to denote the sinful state of the current human
nature, but this use is not catholic in his writings, and many times the
context shows how σαρξ should be
understood. Usually, σαρξ is used in a negative way in contrast with the
holy spirit.

 

The verses I gave in my previous message
show clearly that the term σαρξ is not used with this negative connotation, but
simply refer to the material nature in contrast to the spirit nature. As far as
I remember, the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament explains the whole
case adequately. 

Vasileios Tsialas,
Athens Greece
> From: cwconrad2 at mac.com
> Date: Fri, 12 Mar 2010 10:56:45 -0500
> To: kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
> CC: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA,  1 Jn 4:2 SARKI
> 

> 
> I see no reason to think so. SARX is a positive term in Johannine usage, so far as I can see, whereas Paul's use of it seems to focus upon the limiting, negative aspects of SARX as dominated somehow by sin. BDAG x.v. SARX, 2.c.α. Although it is old and some might think it suspect, I always thought that one of the best parts of Bultmann's _Theology of the New Testament_ was his chapter on "Pauline Anthropology." I think, moreover, that it is somewhat perilous to assume that two so different authors are using this word in exactly the same sense.
> 
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
> 
> 
> 
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