[B-Greek] OFFLIST: 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA, 1 Jn 4:2 SARKI
Carl Conrad
cwconrad2 at mac.com
Fri Mar 12 11:33:40 EST 2010
On Mar 12, 2010, at 11:27 AM, Vasileios Tsialas wrote:
>
> Eph 6:12, instead of 6:16, was the right
> verse.
>
>
>
> I would like to add that it is true that
> Paul many times uses the term σαρξ to denote the sinful state of the current human
> nature, but this use is not catholic in his writings, and many times the
> context shows how σαρξ should be
> understood. Usually, σαρξ is used in a negative way in contrast with the
> holy spirit.
>
>
>
> The verses I gave in my previous message
> show clearly that the term σαρξ is not used with this negative connotation, but
> simply refer to the material nature in contrast to the spirit nature. As far as
> I remember, the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament explains the whole
> case adequately.
But the QUESTION that was raised initially was whether the word SARX has the same meaning in two particular texts, 1 Cor 15:50 and 1 John 4:2.
>
> Vasileios Tsialas,
> Athens Greece
>> From: cwconrad2 at mac.com
>> Date: Fri, 12 Mar 2010 10:56:45 -0500
>> To: kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
>> CC: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA, 1 Jn 4:2 SARKI
>>
>
>>
>> I see no reason to think so. SARX is a positive term in Johannine usage, so far as I can see, whereas Paul's use of it seems to focus upon the limiting, negative aspects of SARX as dominated somehow by sin. BDAG x.v. SARX, 2.c.α. Although it is old and some might think it suspect, I always thought that one of the best parts of Bultmann's _Theology of the New Testament_ was his chapter on "Pauline Anthropology." I think, moreover, that it is somewhat perilous to assume that two so different authors are using this word in exactly the same sense.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list