[B-Greek] 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA, 1 Jn 4:2 SARKI
Elizabeth Kline
kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Mar 12 14:31:17 EST 2010
On Mar 12, 2010, at 8:16 AM, Vasileios Tsialas wrote:
> I believe it does. According to the monistic biblical anthropology, εν σαρκί can mean "as a human being" or "in human nature" (See Ge 6:12; Ps 65:2; Luk 3:6; John 1:14· 1Ti 3:16). "Αίμα και σαρξ" or "σαρξ και αίμα" also mean "human being" or "human nature" (See Matt 16:17; Gal 1:16; Eph 6:16; Heb 2:14).
Vasileios, this is how I would take it, I have no intention to elaborate on the theological implications or biblical anthropology, just a simple statement, SARX KAI hAIMA means human or mortal.
On Mar 12, 2010, at 7:41 AM, Elizabeth Kline wrote:
>
> 1Cor. 15:50 Τοῦτο δέ φημι, ἀδελφοί, ὅτι σὰρξ καὶ αἷμα βασιλείαν θεοῦ κληρονομῆσαι οὐ δύναται οὐδὲ ἡ φθορὰ τὴν ἀφθαρσίαν κληρονομεῖ.
>
> 1Cor. 15:50 TOUTO DE FHMI, ADELFOI, hOTI SARX KAI hAIMA BASILEIAN QEOU KLHRONOMHSAI OU DUNATAI OUDE hH FQORA THN AFQARSIAN KLHRONOMEI.
>
> 1John 4:2 ἐν τούτῳ γινώσκετε τὸ πνεῦμα τοῦ θεοῦ· πᾶν πνεῦμα ὃ ὁμολογεῖ Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐστιν,
>
> 1John 4:2 EN TOUTWi GINWSKETE TO PNEUMA TOU QEOU· PAN PNEUMA hO hOMOLOGEI IHSOUN CRISTON EN SARKI ELHLUQOTA EK TOU QEOU ESTIN,
>
> Does SARX KAI hAIMA in 1Cor. 15:50 and SARKI in 1John 4:2 mean the same thing?
The point of my question was somewhat related to the recent thread about the perfect tense 1John 4:2. Paul seems to be arguing that what is human and mortal is a temporary state and will not BASILEIAN QEOU KLHRONOMHSAI. John is affirming that both in the Prolog to the Gospel and in 1John 4:2 that IHSOUN CRISTON became a human/mortal. The question about the semantic feature of permanence in regard to ELHLUQOTA was dealt with adequatly in the previous thread but here 1Cor. 15:50 we seem to find a Pauline pronouncement about what is human/mortal, that it is transitory, not permanent. My question here has to do with the semantic features of SARX in these two passages. Does the "transitory, not permanent" semantic feature of SARX KAI hAIMA in 1Cor. 15:50 apply to SARX in 1Jn 4:2 ?
Just to confuse matters further, Luke in Luke 24:39 uses SARX in reference to the risen Christ. So I would venture a guess that Luke's use of the term is different from Paul's use in 1Cor. 15:50.
Luke 24:39 ἴδετε τὰς χεῖράς μου καὶ τοὺς πόδας μου ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι αὐτός· ψηλαφήσατέ με καὶ ἴδετε, ὅτι πνεῦμα σάρκα καὶ ὀστέα οὐκ ἔχει καθὼς ἐμὲ θεωρεῖτε ἔχοντα.
Luke 24:39 IDETE TAS CEIRAS MOU KAI TOUS PODAS MOU hOTI EGW EIMI AUTOS· YHLAFHSATE ME KAI IDETE, hOTI PNEUMA SARKA KAI OSTEA OUK ECEI KAQWS EME QEWREITE ECONTA
See also:
Acts 2:31 προϊδὼν ἐλάλησεν περὶ τῆς ἀναστάσεως τοῦ Χριστοῦ ὅτι οὔτε ἐγκατελείφθη εἰς ᾅδην οὔτε ἡ σὰρξ αὐτοῦ εἶδεν διαφθοράν.
Acts 2:31 PROI+DWN ELALHSEN PERI THS ANASTASEWS TOU CRISTOU hOTI OUTE EGKATELEIFQH EIS hAiDHN OUTE hH SARX AUTOU EIDEN DIAFQORAN.
Elizabeth Kline
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