[B-Greek] 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA, 1 Jn 4:2 SARKI

Vasileios Tsialas tsialas78 at hotmail.com
Fri Mar 12 18:32:48 EST 2010


If I have understood your point well, I would say that if we put the phrase "human nature" in both verses, I think that we take the correct meanning (maybe in wooden English), as far I understand.
"Human nature cannot inherit God's Kingdom"—1Co 15:50.
"Christ has came having human nature"—1Jo 4:2.
Actually, the thought of 1Co 15:50 is partly repeated in Joh 3:5, 6: 
ἐὰν μή τις γεννηθῇ ἐξ ὕδατος καὶ πνεύματος͵ οὐ δύναται
εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ. τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ τῆς σαρκὸς σάρξ ἐστιν͵
καὶ τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ τοῦ πνεύματος πνεῦμά ἐστιν.

As regards the "transitory, not permanent", I wouldn't accept it as the core of the semantic domain of Paul's synonims. The semantic focal point (if such a term could be accepted) is the contrast between human nature (ψυχή ζώσα) and divine nature (πνεύμα ζωοποιούν). And I cannot accept "transitory, not permanent", because the first man Adam was not meant to be "transitory and not permanent", but to be depentable as mortal on God. He would be a living soul as far as God was to grant him life.

And because too much discussion is made about the perfect tense and the word σαρξ, here is one final biblical thought:
And if we have known Christ according to human nature, now we know him so no more.
ἐγνώκαμεν κατὰ σάρκα Χριστόν͵ ἀλλὰ νῦν οὐκέτι γινώσκομεν.—2Co 5:16.

As for the "contradiction" between Paul's statement about Christ's being no more a living soul (= a living human being) but, after resurrection, having became a life-giving spirit and Luke's statement of the resurrected Christ of not being a spirit, well the thing goes surely beyond the linguistic analysis, if it hasn't gone as yet. Some scholars would accept that there is a real contradiction between two seperate christological traditions. Others would give hermeneutical explanations in order to harmonize those two statements. Allow me not to proceed to state my opinion on that.

Vasileios Tsialas,
Athens, Greece

> From: kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
> Date: Fri, 12 Mar 2010 11:31:17 -0800
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1Cor. 15:50 SARX KAI hAIMA,  1 Jn 4:2 SARKI
> 

> 
> The point of my question was somewhat related to the recent thread about the perfect tense 1John 4:2. Paul seems to be arguing that what is human and mortal is a temporary state and will not BASILEIAN QEOU KLHRONOMHSAI. John is affirming that both in the Prolog to the Gospel and in 1John 4:2 that IHSOUN CRISTON became a human/mortal. The question about the semantic feature of permanence in regard to ELHLUQOTA was dealt with adequatly in the previous thread but here 1Cor. 15:50 we seem to find a Pauline pronouncement about what is human/mortal, that it is transitory, not permanent. My question here has to do with the semantic features of SARX in these two passages. Does the "transitory, not permanent" semantic feature of SARX KAI hAIMA in 1Cor. 15:50 apply to SARX in 1Jn 4:2 ?    
> 
> Just to confuse matters further, Luke in  Luke 24:39 uses SARX in reference to the risen Christ. So I would venture a guess that Luke's use of the term is different from Paul's use in 1Cor. 15:50. 
> 
> Luke 24:39 ἴδετε τὰς χεῖράς μου καὶ τοὺς πόδας μου ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι αὐτός· ψηλαφήσατέ με καὶ ἴδετε, ὅτι πνεῦμα σάρκα καὶ ὀστέα οὐκ ἔχει καθὼς ἐμὲ θεωρεῖτε ἔχοντα. 
>  
> Luke 24:39 IDETE TAS CEIRAS MOU KAI TOUS PODAS MOU hOTI EGW EIMI AUTOS· YHLAFHSATE ME KAI IDETE, hOTI PNEUMA SARKA KAI OSTEA OUK ECEI KAQWS EME QEWREITE ECONTA
> 
> 
> See also:
> Acts 2:31 προϊδὼν ἐλάλησεν περὶ τῆς ἀναστάσεως τοῦ Χριστοῦ ὅτι οὔτε ἐγκατελείφθη εἰς ᾅδην οὔτε ἡ σὰρξ αὐτοῦ εἶδεν διαφθοράν.
> 
> Acts 2:31 PROI+DWN ELALHSEN PERI THS ANASTASEWS TOU CRISTOU hOTI OUTE EGKATELEIFQH EIS hAiDHN OUTE hH SARX AUTOU EIDEN DIAFQORAN.
> 
> 
> Elizabeth Kline
>  
> 
> 
> 
> ---
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