[B-Greek] Xenophon's Anabasis 1:4:6 ref: John 1:1c
Womble Singer
womblesong at googlemail.com
Wed Mar 17 09:13:01 EDT 2010
Hi,
I am not looking for a theological debate here but purely some
information on the similarity or not in the grammar between Xenophon's
Anabasis 1:4:6 and John 1:1c
Here is the text from Xenophon in context:
Anabasis 1:4:6,7
Εντενθεν εξελαυνει δια Συριαϛ σταθμον ενα παρασαγγας πεντε εις
Μυριανδρον, πολιν οικουμενην υπο Φοινικων επι τη θαλαττη εμποριον δ ην
το χωριον, και ωρμουν αυτοθι ολκαδες πολλαι.
And here is the relevant section as compared with John 1:1c
== Xenophon's Anabasis 1:4:6 ==
N-GSN? V-IAI-3S T-ASN N-ASN
εμποριον δ ην το χωριον
market was the place
== John 1:1c ==
N-NSM V-IAI-3S T-NSM N-NSM
θεος ην ο λογος
god was the word
==
Is this truly a fair comparison? I notice that the logos is nominative
whereas the 'place' is accusative.
Like I said I just really want to know if the grammar's are comparable
rather than going into the knotty issue of doctrine.
Thanks,
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