[B-Greek] Xenophon's Anabasis 1:4:6 ref: John 1:1c
Mark Lightman
lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Wed Mar 17 10:35:28 EDT 2010
Womble wrote:
<And here is the relevant section as compared with John 1:1c
εμποριον δ ην το χωριον
market was the place
θεος ην ο λογος
god was the word
Is this truly a fair comparison? I notice that the logos is nominative
whereas the 'place' is accusative.>
Hi Womble,
Yes, I think this is an excellent comparison.
It shows that the word order in John is perfectly
ordinary, and therefore nothing should be
inferred from it.
(I think εμποριον EMPORION is neut nom
with the same ending as the acc.)
Thanks for pointing out this great parallel.
Well, done!
Mark L
FWSFOROS MARKOS
--- On Wed, 3/17/10, Womble Singer <womblesong at googlemail.com> wrote:
From: Womble Singer <womblesong at googlemail.com>
Subject: [B-Greek] Xenophon's Anabasis 1:4:6 ref: John 1:1c
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Wednesday, March 17, 2010, 7:13 AM
Hi,
I am not looking for a theological debate here but purely some
information on the similarity or not in the grammar between Xenophon's
Anabasis 1:4:6 and John 1:1c
Here is the text from Xenophon in context:
Anabasis 1:4:6,7
Εντενθεν εξελαυνει δια Συριαϛ σταθμον ενα παρασαγγας πεντε εις
Μυριανδρον, πολιν οικουμενην υπο Φοινικων επι τη θαλαττη εμποριον δ ην
το χωριον, και ωρμουν αυτοθι ολκαδες πολλαι.
And here is the relevant section as compared with John 1:1c
== Xenophon's Anabasis 1:4:6 ==
N-GSN? V-IAI-3S T-ASN N-ASN
εμποριον δ ην το χωριον
market was the place
== John 1:1c ==
N-NSM V-IAI-3S T-NSM N-NSM
θεος ην ο λογος
god was the word
==
Is this truly a fair comparison? I notice that the logos is nominative
whereas the 'place' is accusative.
Like I said I just really want to know if the grammar's are comparable
rather than going into the knotty issue of doctrine.
Thanks,
---
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