[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context

Oun Kwon kwonbbl at gmail.com
Thu May 27 00:33:35 EDT 2010


On Wed, May 26, 2010 at 11:46 AM, George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com> wrote:
> While I would not disagree with your analysis that v 21 gives the explanation for v 20, I think you are incorrect to state that the best procedure is to look at v 21 first.  It is always best to take the passage as it is presented.  Besides, how do you justify taking v 21 first when v 20 specifically states τοῦτο πρῶτον γινώσκοντες TOUTO PRWTON GINWSKONTES ?  The statement precedes the explanation (or elaboration) of the statement.  My guess is that the cause of this role reversal lies in a desire to conform to the target language in Englishing it.
>  george
> gfsomsel
>
>

Isn't it just different way of arranging logical statements in
different syntax:

Statement A *because of* Statement B.  (with GAR-clause),

Or

Statement B, *therefore* Statement A,

either way?

The first one which was put in emphasis is what we have in the text .

Oun Kwon.



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