[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context
Iver Larsen
iver_larsen at sil.org
Thu May 27 04:04:12 EDT 2010
----- Original Message -----
From: George F Somsel
To: Iver Larsen ; yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net ; B-Greek
Sent: 27. maj 2010 09:25
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context
I think there a a number of places where "interpretation" is really the only
viable meaning. Consider BDAG's comment
"Ps.-Callisth. 2, 1, 5 Stasagoras complains about the unfavorable interpretation
of an omen by a prophet in these words: σὺ σεαυτῇ ἐπέλυσας τὸ σημεῖον=you gave
the omen your own interpretation."
george
gfsomsel
------------------------
I am not disputing that, especially for the verb form. So we are back to
context, and in the verse under discussion, I maintain that "interpretation"
does not fit. But even in your example, it is the prophet who gives his
version/explanation/interpretation, it is not the hearers who try to interpret
what was said.
I did look up the places quoted for Genesis where Joseph is interpreting dreams,
and the version of LXX I have uses DIAKRINW or DIHGEOMAI, even if one other
version apparently uses EPILUSIS in one instance.
Iver Larsen
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list