[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Thu May 27 04:04:12 EDT 2010


----- Original Message ----- 
From: George F Somsel
To: Iver Larsen ; yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net ; B-Greek
Sent: 27. maj 2010 09:25
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context

I think there a a number of places where "interpretation" is really the only 
viable meaning.  Consider BDAG's comment

"Ps.-Callisth. 2, 1, 5 Stasagoras complains about the unfavorable interpretation 
of an omen by a prophet in these words: σὺ σεαυτῇ ἐπέλυσας τὸ σημεῖον=you gave 
the omen your own interpretation."

george
gfsomsel
------------------------
I am not disputing that, especially for the verb form. So we are back to 
context, and in the verse under discussion, I maintain that "interpretation" 
does not fit. But even in your example, it is the prophet who gives his 
version/explanation/interpretation, it is not the hearers who try to interpret 
what was said.

I did look up the places quoted for Genesis where Joseph is interpreting dreams, 
and the version of LXX I have uses DIAKRINW or DIHGEOMAI, even if one other 
version apparently uses EPILUSIS in one instance.

Iver Larsen




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