[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context
Elizabeth Kline
kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri May 28 23:24:32 EDT 2010
On May 28, 2010, at 1:36 PM, Kimmo Huovila wrote:
> Could the whole thought be paraphrased as "no prophesy is ever a matter of the
> prophet's personal resolution/interpretation (of God's will/message), but they
> spoke words from God as they are being carried along (inspired) by the Holy
> Spirit"? In other words, never is a prophesy the result of the prophets
> interpretation but rather it is given by inspiration. This is an attempt to
> combine Iver's point about the relationship between the two verses and Carl's
> point about the lack of preposition.
>
> TI hUMIN DOKEI?
That sounds to me like it captures the thought. I am not sure about the Iver's point. While others have been posting, I have been trying to make a coherent discourse out of the first chapter of 2Peter. There are problems of coherence at every level. The syntax in places reminds me of Attic Tragedy; hyperbaton and whatever.
Elizabeth Kline
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