[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context
Bryant J. Williams III
bjwvmw at com-pair.net
Sat May 29 01:28:40 EDT 2010
Dear List,
I wonder if we should not go back to verse 19 since "prophecy" is used there
also. I have broken down 19-21 by clause:
19 - KAI EXOMEN BEBAIOTEPON TON PROFHTIKON LOGON,
hW KALWS POIETE PROSEXONTES hWS LUXVWi FAINONTI EN AUXMHRWi,
hEWS hOU hMERA DIAUGASHi KAI FWSFOROS (Markos Fwsforos ?) AVATEILHi EN
TAIS KARDIAIS hUMWN:
20 - TOUTO PRWTON GINWSKONTES,
hOTI PASA PROFHTEIA GRAFHS IDIAS EPILUSEWS OU GIVETAI:
21 - OU GAR QELHMATI ANQRWPOU HVEXQH PROFHTEIA POTE,
ALLA hUPO PNEUMATOS hGIOU FEROMENOI ELALHSAN APO QEOU ANQRWPOI.
It seems that 19a is explained by 20b and 21 gives the contrast between 19 and
20.
En Xristwi,
Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
----- Original Message -----
From: "Elizabeth Kline" <kline_dekooning at earthlink.net>
To: "Kimmo Huovila" <kimmo.huovila at kolumbus.fi>
Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, May 28, 2010 8:24 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context
>
> On May 28, 2010, at 1:36 PM, Kimmo Huovila wrote:
>
> > Could the whole thought be paraphrased as "no prophesy is ever a matter of
the
> > prophet's personal resolution/interpretation (of God's will/message), but
they
> > spoke words from God as they are being carried along (inspired) by the Holy
> > Spirit"? In other words, never is a prophesy the result of the prophets
> > interpretation but rather it is given by inspiration. This is an attempt to
> > combine Iver's point about the relationship between the two verses and
Carl's
> > point about the lack of preposition.
> >
> > TI hUMIN DOKEI?
>
>
> That sounds to me like it captures the thought. I am not sure about the Iver's
point. While others have been posting, I have been trying to make a coherent
discourse out of the first chapter of 2Peter. There are problems of coherence at
every level. The syntax in places reminds me of Attic Tragedy; hyperbaton and
whatever.
>
>
>
> Elizabeth Kline
>
>
>
>
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