[B-Greek] πᾶσαι = only two in Matt. 13.56?

Alastair Haines afhaines at tpg.com.au
Thu Mar 10 01:20:05 EST 2011


Thanks Mark,

for tracking that reference down. I agree with you both.
Bauckham may have been conceeding a "possibility" to some other scholar,
his argument didn't depend on PASAI = both. BDAG may not aid Bauckham,
but it may well support Mark Lightman's reading of 1 Cor 11:12,
which was what grabbed my attention. Professor Conrad's proposed "rhetorical 
usage"
to *underscore* "equality of obligations", seems to me to fit that context 
well.
However, that would be another thread.

alastair


On Mar 9, 2011, at 5:31 PM, Mark Goodacre wrote:

> It doesn't provide a good analogy for the alleged possibility of two
> in Matt. 13.56, though. Here, it is clear that Appian is talking about
> Pompey and Caesar in context.  In Matt. 13.56 there is no previous
> mention of Mary and Salome (or whoever) to make PASAI plausibly mean
> "both".

From: "Carl Conrad" <cwconrad2 at mac.com>

I would agree that it doesn't. The sense here is that if there is to be
a truce, then "everybody" ought to observe the same terms -- even if
there are only two parties. It's a way of underscoring the equality of
obligations, a rhetorical usage of PANTES. Or so it seems to me.







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