[B-Greek] Mark 1:1

Dony K. Donev dony at cupandcross.com
Sun Mar 20 09:38:29 EDT 2011


This is rather a quick question on a first read of Mark 1:1:

Should the genitive "of Jesus Christ" be translated as a

possessive belonging to the "Gospel" in the first clause?

Also, isn't the clumsiness of the phrase, rather hanging at the end

sufficient proof for its later addition in B D W /al/

//

/Dony K. Donev/




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