[B-Greek] Mark 1:1

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sun Mar 20 10:03:41 EDT 2011


Ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου Ὶησοῦ Χριστοῦ [υἱοῦ θεοῦ].
ARXH TOU EUAGGELIOU IHSOU XRISTOU [hUIOU QEOU].

I would take this to be an objective genitive, but I am reminded of the theme 
song of the old "Mr. Ed" show "A horse is a horse, of course, of course 
..."  Similarly, a genitive is a genitive so it's a matter of interpretation.  
You say "potaytoe" and I say "potahtoe."  As to the awkwardness of the 
ending υἱοῦ θεοῦ hUIOU QEOU, what awkwardness?  The attestation is reasonably 
good, and I would hesitate to exclude something solely because of my criticism 
of its literary style -- particularly in a language other than my native 
language.  Admittedly, there are times when some text can appear glaringly 
obvious, but not always.  I'm thinking particularly of Re 16.15 where we 
suddenly find the announcement "Behold, I come as a thief ..."  What is so 
glaring about that is that it simply seems as though it is dropped into the 
middle of an unrelated matter.  Nevertheless, all Mss contain it and so it 
remains in the text.  Most often changes are made in a text to smooth them out 
rather than to make them more difficult.  The scribe seems to say, "I can write 
better Greek than that."

 george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 




________________________________
From: Dony K. Donev <dony at cupandcross.com>
To: Biblical Greek' <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>; wie at uni-bremen.de
Sent: Sun, March 20, 2011 6:38:29 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Mark 1:1

This is rather a quick question on a first read of Mark 1:1:

Should the genitive "of Jesus Christ" be translated as a

possessive belonging to the "Gospel" in the first clause?

Also, isn't the clumsiness of the phrase, rather hanging at the end

sufficient proof for its later addition in B D W /al/

//

/Dony K. Donev/

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