[B-Greek] Mk 1:!; Rev. 1:1 from Dony Donev

David R Dilling david_dilling_57 at comcast.net
Sun Mar 20 14:48:15 EDT 2011


This is my first contact with your organization.

I don’t know know to respond to something I read but will try this.

I am responding to something that Dony Donev asked about Mk. 1:1 and Rev. 1:!

I am a simple Bible student and I don’t pretend to understand all that is going on in your forum.

However, when I read Rev. 1:1 I do see an ambiguity in the genitive case.

To me this is the same as in English.

When I say:  “A bucket of water” I mean a bucket that contains water.

When I say: “A man of Chicago” I mean a man who comes from or lives in Chicago.

When I say: “A letter of David Dilling” I mean a letter that was written by David Dilling.

ETC.    And you have to make your interpretation of what I mean based on the context.

When I read Rev. 1:1 and see “The Revelation of Jesus Christ” I immediately think:  “objective genitive” because the entire book is about Jesus Christ.

To be sure, the revelation may have come from Jesus Christ.

But the immediate context and the rest of the book indicates that the revelation is ABOUT Jesus Christ.

I don’t see what is so difficult about this.

Am I totally naive?

Your very simple Bible student:

David R. Dilling






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