[B-Greek] Mk 1:!; Rev. 1:1 from Dony Donev
Jason Hare
jason at thehebrewcafe.com
Sun Mar 20 17:05:28 EDT 2011
The fact is, though, that the verse continues on:
Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἣν ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὁ θεὸς δεῖξαι τοῖς δούλοις
αὐτοῦ ἃ δεῖ γενέσθαι ἐν τάχει, καὶ ἐσήμανεν ἀποστείλας διὰ τοῦ ἀγγέλου
αὐτοῦ τῷ δούλῳ αὐτοῦ Ἰωάννῃ.
APOKALUYIS IHSOU CRISTOU hHN EDWKEN AUTWi hO QEOS DEIXAI TOIS DOULOIS
AUTOU hA DEI GENESQAI EN TACEI, KAI ESHMANEN APOSTEILAS DIA TOU
AGGELOU AUTOU TWi DOULWi AUTOU IWANNHi.
The question here becomes... if it is a "revelation (about) Jesus,"
then why is it written that God GAVE the revelation to Jesus in order
to show to his servants what was coming? Why would God *give* the
revelation to Jesus? Seems to be a possessive genitive because of this
very statement - "The Revelation belonging to Jesus Christ"
(ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ).
If it were only the phrase "The Revelation of Jesus Christ," I would
agree with you. Because of the added relative clause (ἣν ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὁ
θεός), I don't think it's so cut and dry - and the original question
about its genitive type kinda still stands.
What think ye?
ἔρρωσθε,
Jason Hare
Rehovot, Israel
________________________________________
יהיו לרצון אמרי פי והגיון לבי לפניך, ה' צורי וגואלי
On Sun, Mar 20, 2011 at 8:48 PM, David R Dilling
<david_dilling_57 at comcast.net> wrote:
> This is my first contact with your organization.
>
> I don’t know know to respond to something I read but will try this.
>
> I am responding to something that Dony Donev asked about Mk. 1:1 and Rev. 1:!
>
> I am a simple Bible student and I don’t pretend to understand all that is going on in your forum.
>
> However, when I read Rev. 1:1 I do see an ambiguity in the genitive case.
>
> To me this is the same as in English.
>
> When I say: “A bucket of water” I mean a bucket that contains water.
>
> When I say: “A man of Chicago” I mean a man who comes from or lives in Chicago.
>
> When I say: “A letter of David Dilling” I mean a letter that was written by David Dilling.
>
> ETC. And you have to make your interpretation of what I mean based on the context.
>
> When I read Rev. 1:1 and see “The Revelation of Jesus Christ” I immediately think: “objective genitive” because the entire book is about Jesus Christ.
>
> To be sure, the revelation may have come from Jesus Christ.
>
> But the immediate context and the rest of the book indicates that the revelation is ABOUT Jesus Christ.
>
> I don’t see what is so difficult about this.
>
> Am I totally naive?
>
> Your very simple Bible student:
>
> David R. Dilling
>
>
>
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