[B-Greek] Word Emphasis in Matthew 9:32

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Thu Mar 31 08:16:29 EDT 2011


On Mar 31, 2011, at 8:00 AM, Mark Lightman wrote:

> Jeremy asked
> 
> <However, my larger question has to do with whether word order or word placement 
> in a sentence indicates nuances of meaning.>
> 
> Hi Jeremy,
> 
> You bet, but the nuances are so nuanced that they cannot be demonstrated or 
> falsified.
> 
> Here's Euripides' Alcestis line 9
> 
> καὶ τόνδε ἔσῳζον οἶκον ἐς τόδ' ἡμέρας.           KAI TONDE ESWiZON OIKON ES TOD' 
> hHMERAS.
> 
> "And I preserved this house right up until today."
> 
> And here is the comment on the line by Lusching:
> 
> "Notice the word order. Apollo puts the verb, as it were, INSIDE the house as if 
> he were saving it by his presence in it."
> 
> The only way to prove or disprove Lusching's point would be to ask Euripides.  I 
> wonder if any Greek author ever talks about his or her choice of word order?  
> Lucian, I think, gives the Greek view on this.  When he goes to the Island of 
> the Blessed, he asks Homer why he began his story with the wrath of Achilles.  
> Homer says it just came to him that way,  without giving it much thought.  
> (οὕτως ἐπελθεῖν αὐτῳ μηδὲν ἐπιτηδεύσαντι)

Come on, Mark: Lucian is the stand-up comedian, cartoonist, and political-
social caricaturist of his era -- the era that Hegel describes as coming after
the owl of Minerva has flown the coop. Do you really think that Lucian is
the spokesman for the Greeks? Well, of course you do. You would. You
fall into the same category yourself!  ;-)

However, I would be rather skeptical of Luschnig comment on word-order
here in the Alcestis (KAI TOND' ESWiZON OIKON) too. This sandwiching
of verb between such the elements of the accusative phrase is one of the
standard elements, not in prose, to be sure, but in poetry.

> 
> 
> <Does the word order of the adjective κωφὸν (KWFON) before the participle  
> δαιμονιζόμενον (DAIMONIZOMENON)  communicate, as an older commentator  like 
> Alfred Plummer  thinks it does, that the man's muteness is primary, while the 
> fact that  he is demon-possessed is secondary?>
> 
> Same thing.  The only way to prove or disprove this would be to ask Matthew.  My 
> guess is he would say this is just the way the words came out.  
> 
> 
> Hamlet:  Do you see yonder cloud that's almost in shape of a camel?
> Polonius:  By th' mass and 'tis, like a camel indeed.
> Hamlet: Methinks it is like a weasel.
> Polonius: It is backed like a weasel.
> Hamlet:  Or like a whale
> Polonius: Very like a whale

Yea, verily, 'tis like Leviathan hisself!

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)

> 
> 
> 
> ________________________________
> From: "spencerj76 at aol.com" <spencerj76 at aol.com>
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Sent: Tue, March 29, 2011 8:50:06 AM
> Subject: [B-Greek] Word Emphasis in Matthew 9:32
> 
> 
> 
> 29 March 2011
> 
> Friends:
> 
> I was wondering about a matter of emphasis that may or may not be implied in the 
> word order of Matthew 9:32:
> 
> Αὐτῶν δὲ ἐξερχομένων ἰδοὺ προσήνεγκαν αὐτῷ ἄνθρωπον κωφὸν δαιμονιζόμενον
> 
> AUTWN DE EXERCHOMENWN IDOU PROSHNEGKAN AUTWi ANQRWPON KWFON DAIMONIZOMENON
> 
> Does the word order of the adjective κωφὸν (KWFON) before the participle 
> δαιμονιζόμενον (DAIMONIZOMENON)  communicate, as an older commentator like 
> Alfred Plummer  thinks it does, that the man's muteness is primary, while the 
> fact that he is demon-possessed is secondary? Or is that pressing the Greek word 
> order too far? For the sake of discussion, I'd like to note Matthew 12:22:
> 
> Τότε προσηνέχθη αὐτῷ δαιμονιζόμενος τυφλὸς καὶ κωφός.
> 
> TOTE PROSHNECHQH AUTWi DAIMONIZOMENOS TUFLOS KAI KWFOS. 
> 
> In this case, would the placement of the participle before the two adjectives 
> indicate that the demon-possession of the man contributed to the person's 
> blindness and muteness, demon-possession being primary?  
> 
> 
> These are specific textual questions. However, my larger question has to do with 
> whether word order or word placement in a sentence indicates nuances of meaning. 
> In this context, I thought I'd quote A. T. Robertson and W. Hersey Davis:
> 
> "It is possible in Greek to express the most delicate shades of an idea by means 
> of voice, tense,  mode, cases, prepositions, particles, conjunctions. Often an 
> idea in Greek can be expressed in various ways that are substantially alike, but 
> yet differ in ways that the sensitive Greek mind understands. So the Greek has 
> liberty where the Latin has bonds. The Greek may use coordinating clauses or 
> subordinating clauses with conjunctions, or the infinitive, or the particple. 
> His sentences may be short or long. He may use prepositions freely or not. Only 
> do not accuse a Greek of using one construction for another. Freedom is the 
> glory of the Greek language. Each writer has his own style and flavor" (A New 
> Short Grammar of the Greek Testament, 10th ed. [Grand Rapids: Baker Book House, 
> 1958], pp. 318-319). Robertson doesn't specifically mention worder order or word 
> placement here as a factor in nuanced Greek, but might it be a factor?
> 
> This matter of word order or word placement interests me, but I don't have many 
> recent resources dealing with the  topic. I'd be interested in the comments of 
> list members.
> 
> Best wishes,
> Jeremy Spencer







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