From: Raziel613@aol.com
Date: Sat Dec 04 1999 - 11:04:34 EST
In a message dated 99-12-04 00:01:38 EST, you write:
> I have a question concerning this phrase that is found in the book of
> > Rev and translated "for ever and ever". In every place it appaers these 5
> > words are all in the Greek with one exception.. Rev 14:11. For some
reason
> > when John wrote this verse he left the definite article out. Does anybody
> > have any thoughts as to why he did? Thank you all. Jim Kirby
>
> Kirby,
>
> Spent some time on this without much in the way of results. The exact
> form found in Rev 14:11 EIS AIWNAS AIWNWN is not found anywhere else
> either in the NT or the LXX.
>
> However an anarthrous form with a similar sense is found in the Psalms
> and Daniel (LXX only):
I wonder if this is another one of John's "solecisms" where he is carrying
over the exact grammatical forms to signal OT allusions. Beale's The Book of
Revelation (NIGTC) argues that many Daniel allusions in Revelation are
intentional and that Daniel is a framework for the entire book. If the
anarthrous form in a similar sense is also found in Daniel and Psalms that
may explain John's use of it here.
James Maeser
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