I have found my missing bibliographical references:
The original article I mentioned is Julius R. Mantey, "The
Mistranslation of the Perfect Tense in John 20:23, Mt. 16:19, and Mt.
18:18," Journal of Biblical Literature 58 (1939), 243-249. Mantey takes
the future perfect seriously and insists on the translation "shall have
been bound," which fits more neatly into my Protestant mindset.
In the same issue of the Journal of Biblical Literature is an opposing
perspective written by Henry Cadbury, "The Meaning of John 20:23, Mt.
16:19, and Mt. 18:18," 251-254.
One might also refers to Mantey's much more recent article, "Evidence
that the Perfect Tense in John 20:23 and Matthew 16:19 is
Mistranslated," Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society 16
(1973), 129-138. This article contains additional bibliographic
ABD, The Southern Baptist Theological Seminary
Missionary appointee to Cameroon with World Team