> hoping that it goes beyond matters of vocabulary, although
> idiomatic expressions derived from Latin would be significant.
I did check a few of the references. My impression is that it goes into
idiomatic expressions, as well as at least some minor points of possible
grammatical influence. But I only checked a few, and it was hard to follow
without understanding the Latin.
> As an aside, your concern about the pluperfect in John 20:11
> may be laid to rest. Yes, hEISTHKEI is pluperfect--but it has the
> force of an imperfect...
Ah, thanks. I wasted 2 hours on that yesterday evening, and still hadn't figured