Hello again, friends--
I am back after a few weeks absence for technical reasons.  
I think I brought the following topic up before I left, but missed any
responses that may have been posted.

I would like any opinions on 
"Matthew's" possible misinterpretation of the Septuagint use of the the
term _parthenos_ in Isaiah 7:14.  The narrowing of the term to mean
strictly "virgin" seems to have taken place over time, and I am curious
whether in Septuagint times the older meaning of the term as somewhat
synonymous with _neanis_ (maid, young woman) was still applicable.

  As possible evidence for this I would cite the tale of the rape of Dinah in
Genesis 34.  It details how Dinah was seduced / raped by Shechem in 34:2,
and follows the account of their intercourse with 32:3, which states that
Shechem "loved the girl" (_EgapEsen tEn parthenon) and spoke kindly to the
girl (elalEsen kata tEn dianoian tEs parthenou autE).  This would seem to
indicate that _parthenos_ is being used as an alternative to _neanis_ in
this instance, which would explain why it was used in place of _neanis_,
the (at least later) more accurate translation of the Hebrew 'almah in
Isaiah 7:14.
Any opinions?