Re: Parthenos

For starters, I am not convinced that Matthew did "misinterpret" a LXX 
version of Is. 7.14.  I think that he deliberatly interpreted it.  

You are correct in pointing out that in many, perhaps even the majority 
of occurrances, parthenos appears synonymous with neanis, occasionally 
being used to describe a sexual state or marital state.  IN short, a 
discussion of the meaning of parthenos will depend on the context.  Since 
Genesus 34 was brought up-parthenos is used twice to refer to Diana-once 
before the rape and once after-virgin is probably not an appropriate 
translation in either case.  I do not think that "virgin" is the best 
translation for Is. 7.14.  I do think that it is a necessary translation 
for Mt 1.23 because of the care that Matthew takes in pointing out Mary's 
sexual purity in the eyes of the Law, that Jesus is not Joseph's son but 
Mary's, that at the very least this conception is sanctioned by the 
HS-and imho, ( I read MT 1.1 as referring to Genesis) caused by the HS 
referring us back to Gen 1.2 and 2.7, and that Joseph did not "know" her 
until after Jesus' birth all add up to Matt saying that in Jesus we have 
a virginal conception which fulfills this piece of scripture, which Mt 
would then have probably read as "virgin" rather than just young girl.

-Larry Swain
Parmly Billings Library

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