[B-Greek] John 18:24 APESTEILEN
Clwinbery at aol.com
Clwinbery at aol.com
Tue Apr 22 09:58:39 EDT 2003
In a message dated 4/22/03 4:21:35 AM, cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu writes:
>At 10:30 PM -0400 4/21/03, <bertdehaan at gosympatico.ca> wrote:
>> Clwinbery at aol.com wrote:
>>
>>> First the verb APESTEILEN is aorist. The perfect is APESTALKEN and thus
>the
>>> pluperfect built on the same stem would be APESTALKEIN (first person-third
>=
>>> -LEI).
>>> The problems of order in this part of John are notorious. Since this
>type of
>>> discussion is independent of the Greek, it is best to look in any critical
>>> commentary.
>>>
>>> Carlton Winbery
>>> Louisiana College
>>
>> I understood that APESTEILEN is aorist, that's why I questioned the
>>pluperfect translation. I gather from you response that it not a good
>>translation but an attempt to make sense of the chronological order. Thank
>>you for your reply.
>>Bert de Haan.
>
>I would just add to this that there's nothing wrong with translating an
>aorist as a pluperfect in the right context, i.e., where there's clearly
>a
>reference point in the past to which the happening indicated by the aorist
>verb is anterior. But more often it is the aorist circumstantial participle
>that will be conveyed by an English pluperfect.
>--
>
>Carl W. Conrad
I must admit that I misunderstood Bert. I agree with Carl's statement above.
If you must put a name to the category it would be a culminative aorist, i.e.
one that emphasizes the completedness of the action.
Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College
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