John 20:31 was Re: [B-Greek] Phil 2:11
Stephen C. Carlson
scarlson at mindspring.com
Wed Oct 15 01:27:52 EDT 2003
At 07:26 PM 10/14/03 +0300, Iver wrote:
>> I've always thought this too myself, but then I've recently read an
>> article* that pointed out that since CRISTOS has the article (both
>> are definite), it should be the subject, i.e.: "that the Messiah
>> is Jesus."
>
>It seems to me that this argument is not convincing. There are a number of
>similar identificational statements in John, e.g.
>
>1:20 EGW OUK EIMI hO CRISTOS
>1:25 EI SU OUK EI hO CRISTOS
>3:28 OUK EIMI EGW hO CRISTOS
>4:29 hOUTOS ESTIN hO CRISTOS (also 7:26,41)
>10:24 EI SU EI hO CRISTOS
>11:27 hOTI SU EI hO CRISTOS
>20:31 hOTI IHSOUS ESTIN hO CRISTOS
The argument for identifying the subject as the articular hO CRISTOS
rather than the anathrous IHSOUS is grammatical. However, all of the
listed examples other than John 20:31 involve definite pronouns
(personal or demonstrative), so these examples, though interesting,
have little to no bearing on the grammatical argument actually being
made for John 20:31.
Stephen Carlson
--
Stephen C. Carlson mailto:scarlson at mindspring.com
Synoptic Problem Home Page http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/synopt/
"Poetry speaks of aspirations, and songs chant the words." Shujing 2.35
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