[B-Greek] I Tim 3.16 :: Why "seen of Angels"
Wilson Hines
wilsonhines at hotmail.com
Sat Apr 30 11:44:01 EDT 2005
"OPSTHE ANGELOIS"
Why wouldn't most translations use something other than "seen?"
I understand that the DBL defines it first by "see," however the other
definitions are:
1. Pay attention to.
2. Understand.
3. Visit
4. Experience
5. Learn about
6. Cause to happen
The BDAG, of course, goes into much more detail, but still supports my
personal thoughts here.
The reason, I ask why "seen," as the KJV, NIV and NKJV puts it, is because
the Angels have "seen" Him since their creation. My further thoughts are:
1. They would "Pay attention to" Him. I.e., Attend or serve.
2. They would "Understand" Him. They aren't omniscient, so after the cross
and His resurrection they possibly could see Him in a different light, or
become more "understanding" of Him and His role.
3. They could "visit" him.
4. They could "experience," that in itself is a word with a whole range of
meaning.
5. They could "Learn more about", ie. No. 2.
6. But, they can't "Cause to happen." He is omnipotent.
Any thoughts here?
Thanks
Wilson Hines
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