[B-Greek] I Tim 3.16 :: Why "seen of Angels"
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at ioa.com
Sat Apr 30 11:55:39 EDT 2005
On Apr 30, 2005, at 11:44 AM, Wilson Hines wrote:
> "OPSTHE ANGELOIS"
>
> Why wouldn't most translations use something other than "seen?"
>
> I understand that the DBL defines it first by "see," however the other
> definitions are:
> 1. Pay attention to.
> 2. Understand.
> 3. Visit
> 4. Experience
> 5. Learn about
> 6. Cause to happen
>
> The BDAG, of course, goes into much more detail, but still supports my
> personal thoughts here.
>
> The reason, I ask why "seen," as the KJV, NIV and NKJV puts it, is
> because
> the Angels have "seen" Him since their creation. My further
> thoughts are:
>
> 1. They would "Pay attention to" Him. I.e., Attend or serve.
> 2. They would "Understand" Him. They aren't omniscient, so after
> the cross
> and His resurrection they possibly could see Him in a different
> light, or
> become more "understanding" of Him and His role.
> 3. They could "visit" him.
> 4. They could "experience," that in itself is a word with a whole
> range of
> meaning.
> 5. They could "Learn more about", ie. No. 2.
> 6. But, they can't "Cause to happen." He is omnipotent.
The "passive" WFQH normally carries an intransitive sense "appeared"--
this is really a standard sense. In view of this narrative credal
sequence with a sort of homoeoteleuton of verb-forms in -QH, it is
reasonable to want to give a passive sense to WFQH here. In view of
the Christological confessional sequence here I think that this WFQH
refers to the risen and exalted Christ.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at ioa.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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