[B-Greek] I Tim 3.16 :: Why "seen of Angels"

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at ioa.com
Sat Apr 30 11:55:39 EDT 2005


On Apr 30, 2005, at 11:44 AM, Wilson Hines wrote:

> "OPSTHE ANGELOIS"
>
> Why wouldn't most translations use something other than "seen?"
>
> I understand that the DBL defines it first by "see," however the other
> definitions are:
> 1.  Pay attention to.
> 2.  Understand.
> 3.  Visit
> 4.  Experience
> 5.  Learn about
> 6.  Cause to happen
>
> The BDAG, of course, goes into much more detail, but still supports my
> personal thoughts here.
>
> The reason, I ask why "seen," as the KJV, NIV and NKJV puts it, is  
> because
> the Angels have "seen" Him since their creation.  My further  
> thoughts are:
>
> 1.  They would "Pay attention to" Him.  I.e., Attend or serve.
> 2.  They would "Understand" Him.  They aren't omniscient, so after  
> the cross
> and His resurrection they possibly could see Him in a different  
> light, or
> become more "understanding" of Him and His role.
> 3.  They could "visit" him.
> 4.  They could "experience," that in itself is a word with a whole  
> range of
> meaning.
> 5.  They could "Learn more about", ie. No. 2.
> 6.  But, they can't "Cause to happen."  He is omnipotent.

The "passive" WFQH normally carries an intransitive sense "appeared"-- 
this is really a standard sense.  In view of this narrative credal  
sequence with a sort of homoeoteleuton of verb-forms in -QH, it is  
reasonable to want to give a passive sense to WFQH here. In view of  
the Christological confessional sequence here I think that this WFQH  
refers to the risen and exalted Christ.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at ioa.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/




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