[B-Greek] John 1:18 concession

Jason Kerrigan jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Fri Aug 11 21:55:19 EDT 2006


Hello,
   
  Thanks for your patiance with me. I did some studying and I concede the point that it has to be a direct discourse in order for theos to be the topic of the begotten's declaration in John 1:18.
   
  Thanks for your responses, and I apologize for my hasty response.
   
  Can anyone please explain to me WHY the direct discourse allows for theos to be the topic? I agree, by comparison of similiar Biblical examples, but I do not understand the reasoning behind the facts.
   
  Thanks for everything,
  Respect and grattitude,
  Jason Kerrigan

 		
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