[B-Greek] John 1:18 concession

Harold Holmyard hholmyard at ont.com
Fri Aug 11 22:07:47 EDT 2006


Dear Jason,

>   
>  Thanks for your patiance with me. I did some studying and I concede the point that it has to be a direct discourse in order for theos to be the topic of the begotten's declaration in John 1:18.
>   
>  Thanks for your responses, and I apologize for my hasty response.
>   
>  Can anyone please explain to me WHY the direct discourse allows for theos to be the topic? I agree, by comparison of similiar Biblical examples, but I do not understand the reasoning behind the facts.
>  
>

HH: Indirect discourse in Acts 15:14 introduces a separate clause. The 
whole clause functions basically as the object of the verb EXHGHSATO, 
but within the clause there can be a separate subject in the nominative 
and an independent verb.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

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