[B-Greek] John 1:18 Direct Discourse?

Jason Kerrigan jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Fri Aug 11 23:54:23 EDT 2006


Hello again,
   
  Thanks alot Harold, I appreciate your patience with me and I apologize 
  if I insulted you by not accepting your insights.
   
  In a book published by Hendrickson Publishers entitled, "A Dictionary of Early 
  Christian Biography," on pg.777, end of the first paragraph in the right column, in Origen's biography, it says, and I quote:
   
  "Perhaps it is not less charateristic that he blames those who like Heracleon, hold
   that John 1:16-18 are the words of the evangelist and not the Baptist."
   
  Now, assuming Origen's position that John 1:18 contains the words of John the
  baptist, wouldn't this fit under the category of direct discourse? and thereby allow for
  theos to be understood as the topic of the only begotten's declaration?
   
  Also, in the Interlinear that I own (Nestale Aland, translated by Alford D. Lit.) the
   translation underneath eugaletos says, and I quote: 
   
                                             "declared [?him]" 
   
  Without understanding theos, and thus ekeinos, as the noun (and pronoun) being
  declared doesn't this leave John 1:18 as an incomplete sentence without any stated
  topic of the Son's declaration at all? Thus causing the translator to write [?him]???? 
   
  Thanks,
  Jason Kerrigan

 			
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