[B-Greek] partitive genitive as subject/object
Elizabeth Kline
kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Feb 9 22:57:59 EST 2007
On Feb 9, 2007, at 6:16 PM, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
> I have no problem with the notion of partitives as subject or
> object of a verb; we see them in Homer;
Homer OD IX:102
MH PWS TIS LWTOIO FAGWN NOSTOIO LAQHTAI.
Looks like LWTOIO is the partitive object of FAGWN.
> and I don't think there's anything particularly Semitic about it
I am willing the let that issue with the LXX experts. BDF #164.2
"quite rare in classical ... common in Semitic languages ... often in
LXX."
> But it seems to me that the structure of the sentence in John 6:11
> is highly elliptical.
Yes, highly elliptical and therefore an object of interest for
anyone who might have at one time been under the influence of
generative grammar.
> I'd formulate it thus
> ELABEN OUN TOUS ARTOUS hO IHSOUS KAI EUCARISTHSAS DIEDWKEN TOIS
> ANAKEIMENOIS, hOMOIWS KAI EK TWN OYARIWN (ELABEN TOSOUTON) hOSON
> HQELON (KAI EUCARISTHSAS DIEDWKEN TOIS ANAKEIMENOIS).
> I just think that in this instance there's an implicit quantitative
> pronoun upon which EK TWN OYARIWN hangs. Certainly it's a partitive
> phrase in any case.
Yes certainly.
Thank you.
Elizabeth Kline
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