[B-Greek] MHTI question
James Ernest
j.d.ernest at bc.edu
Sat Jul 12 18:25:40 EDT 2008
Regarding this passage from Origen's Matthew commentary:
τίνι δὲ ἔδωκε <τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ
λύτρον ἀντὶ πολλῶν>; οὐ γὰρ
δὴ τῷ θεῷ· μήτι οὖν τῷ πονηρῷ;
οὗτος γὰρ ἐκράτει ἡμῶν, ἕως δοθῇ
τὸ ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν αὐτῷ <λύτρον> ἡ τοῦ
Ἰησοῦ ψυχή, ἀπατηθέντι <δηλονότι
καὶ φαντασθέντι> ὡς δυναμένῳ αὐτῆς
κυριεῦσαι καὶ οὐχ ὁρῶντι ὅτι οὐ φέρει
τὴν ἐπὶ τῷ κατέχειν αὐτὴν βάσανον.
TINI DE EDWKE THN YUCHN AUTOU
LUTRON ANTI POLLWN? OU GAR
DH TW QEW; MHTI OUN TW PONHRW?
etc.
"And to whom did he give his soul
as a ransom for many? For certainly it was
not to God."
Then what? Wouldn't MHTI expect a negative answe, like MH?
"It was not then to the evil one, was it?"
LSJ under MHTIS says:
in direct questions, μή τί σοι δοκῶ ταρβεῖν; do I . . ? (i.e. I do
not), A.Pr.959, cf. 249, LXX Ge.20.9, Ev.Marc.4.21.
But when he quotes
this passage in a book, Pelikan says "Then why not the devil?"
--which makes better sense given the sequel.
What is the force of MHTI?
James Ernest
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