[B-Greek] MHTI question

James Ernest j.d.ernest at bc.edu
Sat Jul 12 18:39:21 EDT 2008


Maybe it's a question "with the effect of doubtful affirmation"? That
would make sense. (Smyth 1772, talking about MH) . . .

2008/7/12 James Ernest <j.d.ernest at bc.edu>:
> Regarding this passage from Origen's Matthew commentary:
>
> τίνι δὲ ἔδωκε <τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ
> λύτρον ἀντὶ πολλῶν>; οὐ γὰρ
> δὴ τῷ θεῷ· μήτι οὖν τῷ πονηρῷ;
> οὗτος γὰρ ἐκράτει ἡμῶν, ἕως δοθῇ
> τὸ ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν αὐτῷ <λύτρον> ἡ τοῦ
> Ἰησοῦ ψυχή, ἀπατηθέντι <δηλονότι
> καὶ φαντασθέντι> ὡς δυναμένῳ αὐτῆς
> κυριεῦσαι καὶ οὐχ ὁρῶντι ὅτι οὐ φέρει
> τὴν ἐπὶ τῷ κατέχειν αὐτὴν βάσανον.
>
> TINI DE EDWKE THN YUCHN AUTOU
> LUTRON ANTI POLLWN? OU GAR
> DH TW QEW; MHTI OUN TW PONHRW?
> etc.
>
> "And to whom did he give his soul
> as a ransom for many? For certainly it was
> not to God."
>
> Then what? Wouldn't MHTI expect a negative answe, like MH?
> "It was not then to the evil one, was it?"
>
> LSJ under MHTIS says:
> in direct questions, μή τί σοι δοκῶ ταρβεῖν; do I . . ? (i.e. I do
> not), A.Pr.959, cf. 249, LXX Ge.20.9, Ev.Marc.4.21.
>
>
> But when he quotes
> this passage in a book, Pelikan says "Then why not the devil?"
> --which makes better sense given the sequel.
>
> What is the force of MHTI?
>
> James Ernest
>


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