Date: Wed Mar 27 1996 - 19:22:52 EST

In a message dated 96-03-27 11:53:35 EST, Carl Conrad wrote:

> Is the Christian believer subject to the 10
>commandments? Or, to use the language of Galatians, has the Christian
>believer dispensed with the Torah as a PAIDAGWGOS and is he/she now
>endeavoring to obey God directly, without a mediating Torah?

I am just a beginner, so please pardon any ignorant questions. As I was
thinking about your reply above, I came across a comment on 1 Cor. 14:21 "In
the law it is written (gegraptai)" in Rieneker and Rogers' Linguistic Key to
the Greek New Testament that invoked a question. The comment (with allusion
to Moulton & Milligan's vocabulary) was that gegraptai here being perfect
"pointed to the continuing authority of that which stands written." I found
that interesting and would desire comment on the proper understanding or
extent of the perfect tense in this regard.


Kenneth Bent

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