From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Mar 27 1996 - 19:59:02 EST
On 3/27/96, GTCOTR@aol.com wrote:
> In a message dated 96-03-27 11:53:35 EST, Carl Conrad wrote:
> > Is the Christian believer subject to the 10
> >commandments? Or, to use the language of Galatians, has the Christian
> >believer dispensed with the Torah as a PAIDAGWGOS and is he/she now
> >endeavoring to obey God directly, without a mediating Torah?
> I am just a beginner, so please pardon any ignorant questions. As I was
> thinking about your reply above, I came across a comment on 1 Cor. 14:21 "In
> the law it is written (gegraptai)" in Rieneker and Rogers' Linguistic Key to
> the Greek New Testament that invoked a question. The comment (with allusion
> to Moulton & Milligan's vocabulary) was that gegraptai here being perfect
> "pointed to the continuing authority of that which stands written." I found
> that interesting and would desire comment on the proper understanding or
> extent of the perfect tense in this regard.
I wouldn't argue with this as an understanding of the force of the perfect
tense. It seems to me that the usual formula for "Scripture says ... " is,
in fact, GEGRAPTAI ..., which might be translated, to convey that force
you've referred to, as "it stands written (that) ... "
Parallel is hESTHKA, pf. active of hISTAMAI. hESTHKA means "I AM standing,"
i.e., "my rising to a standing position is complete," whereas hISTAMAI
means "I am beginning to rise to a standing position" or "I am in the
process of rising to a standing position."
I hope that the above question did not intend to get into theological
implications of 1 Cor 14:21, for of course, the passage there cited from OT
is Deuteronomy 28.49, which is, technically speaking, part of the Torah.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO, USA 63130
firstname.lastname@example.org OR email@example.com
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