Date: Wed Mar 27 1996 - 23:49:02 EST

In a message dated 96-03-27 19:59:31 EST, cwconrad wrote:

>I hope that the above question did not intend to get into theological
>implications of 1 Cor 14:21, for of course, the passage there cited from OT
>is Deuteronomy 28.49, which is, technically speaking, part of the Torah.

Dr. Conrad:

Thanks so much for your reply!

No, I was not interested in the theological implications, just the
grammatical ones.

Thanks again!

Kenneth Bent

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