From: Jonathan Robie (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Oct 23 1996 - 18:04:12 EDT
Most NT texts seem to use the term "future more probable" for the same form
that most classical people call "future more vivid". If I'm not mistaken, a
couple of RBGs (Really Big Greeks) have stated flatly that it is more vivid,
not more probable. Yet NT grammars seem to favor more probable.
Is this used differently in NT Greek?
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