Re: Future: more vivid or more probable?

From: Jonathan Robie (
Date: Thu Oct 24 1996 - 18:49:33 EDT

At 05:43 PM 10/24/96 -0500, Edgar Krenz wrote:

>>Is this used differently in NT Greek?
>NO. It's just that too many people who deal only with the grammar of the
>Greek NT seem to coin new, and often individualistic, grammatical
>terminology. If theyk would all adopt, as much as possible, the terminology
>of H. W. Smythe's Greek Grammar, there would be fewer problems in teaching
>and learning.

Do classical texts have less variation in terminology?


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