From: Paul S. Dixon (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Feb 02 1998 - 19:31:07 EST
On Mon, 2 Feb 1998 12:24:23 +0000 "Brian E. Wilson"
>>Andrew S. Kulikovsky asks:
>>Are all the OT quotations in the NT from the LXX, or are some directly
>>from the Hebrew?
>Are there any word-for-word exact quotations from the LXX in the NT?
>Is not the LXX used in the NT not so much for quotations as for
>Paul, and other NT writers who allude to the Old Testament whether in
>Hebrew or Greek, were usually not too bothered about the exact wording
>of any text they were adapting. They were not literalists.
I'm not sure what you mean by "literalists" here. The fact, however,
that the NT authors might have changed, added, or deleted words from OT
citations for their purposes in the NT does not mean they regarded the OT
words as anything less than inspired, authoritative, profitable (2 Tim
3:16), and inerrant (Mt 5:18, Jn 10:35). The NT authors, under the
inspiration of the Holy Spirit, could take any writing, make changes to
it, and record for us what is the inspired NT scriptures.
>Paul himself wrote (2 Cor 3:6b) - TO GAR GRAMMA APOKTEINEI - "for the
>written letters bring death" (Jerusalem Bible translation). I agree with
I hope you are not creating a false dichotomy here. 2 Cor 3:6b is not
saying that the words of scripture should not be taken literally, just
that doing so may not be enough. The Pharisees thought they were obeying
the law when they did not literally commit murder, but they did not take
it far enough (spiritually) because they failed to realize that being
angry with a brother was a violation of this law (Mt 5:22).
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