MENEIN in 1 John 2:6

From: Benjamin Raymond (
Date: Sun Feb 15 1998 - 01:26:34 EST


Well, we're finally in the second chapter of 1 John. I have to say, being
able to read through the the first chapter and a half without consulting a
lexicon or chart is exciting! <huge grin>

I just need to confirm something. I parse MENEIN in 2:6 as an infinitive.
Another student last week parsed it as a present active indicative 3rd
singular with a moveable nu. My prof acknowledged that the latter might be
a possibility, which left me with my jaw drooping to the floor.

I found a number of instances in the GNT where MENEI is followed by a word
beginning with a vowel (albeit only one other time with an omicron in 1 Cor
3:14) and plenty more in the Septuagint... with no nu (and no nu's is good
news!). As for me, I've just never heard of a moveable nu used after this

2 Questions:

Would anyone be so kind as to remind me when the moveable nu is an option?

Assuming MENEIN here is an infinitive (which I'm still convinced it is),
how does it function? Does it complete the thought of the participle
LOGWN, something like (though probably no translated like) the English
construction, "The one who claims to remain?"

Benjamin Raymond
senior, Harding University School of Biblical Studies
HU Box 11871, 900 E Center
Searcy, AR 72149-0001

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