From: Carlton Winbery (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Feb 15 1998 - 11:57:59 EST
Paul Zellmer wrote;
>Jude has been giving me problems. And just when I think I get to a
>phrase I understand, all other translations take a unique jog and leave
>Could someone please explain to me why AGAPAIS in Jude 12 is
>translated, "love feasts" by many if not all the common versions? I
>looked in vain for a textual variant here. Is the plural form changing
>the noun to "+counting" and the English word "love", when used to
>translate AGAPE, is considered "-counting"? Or is there something in
>the way the Fathers use AGAPE in the plural to refer to love feasts?
>Please, what's going on here?
The entry in LSJ lists AGAPE in the plural as love-feasts and gives Jude 12
and 2 Peter 2:13 as egs. The reading in 2 Peter is a variant reading in
the UBS 4. This is referring to the meals among the early Christians where
they shared with those who had nothing. In I Cor. 11 the communion seems
to be still associated with a full meal.
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Pineville, LA 71359
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