From: Richard Lindeman (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 24 1998 - 15:28:53 EST
>From: Edgar Foster <email@example.com>
>Date: Mon, 23 Feb 98 12:03:24 PST
>Subject: AUTWN and Rev. 6:17
>How do you B-Greekers suggest one translates AUTWN in Rev. 6:17? Should =
>it be "his" or "their"? What should govern one's choice of translation =
>in this regard?
>Classical Languages Major
OK... Let me take a stab at this one. First of all it is a text critical
question. I will let our textual critics respond as to whether AUTOU or
AUTWN has the greater textual weight. However, in my 27th edition of
Nestle I find AUTWN to be what has been included in the text. As for how it
translates, I believe that it is simply the difference between and
objective genetive or a subjective genetive. Whenever a genetive noun is
associated with a verbal noun (a noun which has a verbal counterpart such as
ORGHS does), then that genetive noun is often either objective ( the object
of the verbal action) or subjective (the subject of the verbal action). So
then the translation would either be "The day of his great wrath(God's wrath
directed toward them) has come." (Subjective genetive of AUTOU) Or else it
would be translated "The day of their (experiencing from God) great wrath."
(In this case, Objective genetive of AUTWN). In either case the the end
result is not greatly different.
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