From: Edgar Foster (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Apr 10 1998 - 19:05:22 EDT
---"Dale M. Wheeler" wrote:
> Mark O'Brien wrote:
> >At 08:36 AM 4/7/98 -0700, you wrote:
> >>On page 84 of _Exegetical Fallacies_, Carson discusses the GS Rule.
> >>Carson (as do others) says that the GS Rule applies to persons and
> >>**things**. Others insist that the "rule" only applies to PERSONS.
> >>Who is right?
> >I believe, IMHO, that Wallace has done the most exhaustive work on
> >Granville Sharp Rule... you should read either his PhD
dissertation or the
> >summary of this in his grammar. The bottom line (according to
> >GS applies only to those cases where:
> >1. neither noun is impersonal
> >2. neither noun is plural
> >3. neither noun is a proper name
> I would like to second what Mark has said here. I found it strange
> Don Carson would say that the G-S rule applies to things (or
> I went and looked at his discussion. He says neither one of those
> in fact he goes to great lengths to point out that when the G-S
> construction uses things and plurals that it is not a valid example
> of the G-S construction. One could wish that he had simply stated the
> situation as Mark (Dan Wallace, Granville-Sharp himself) stated it
> above; nevertheless, he never says things and plurals are examples of
> the valid use of the G-S; he calls such things a "softer form" of the
> G-S rule.
If Carson doesn't think that the GS Rule applies to THINGS, then why
does he use 1 Thess. 2:12 and Phil. 1:7 to demonstrate that "it does
not necessarily follow that the two substantives joined by KAI . . .
refer to the same thing" (Carson 84-85). He does later say that we
should not accept the rule in its simplified form, but he NEVER says
that the rule doesn't apply to things. As a matter of fact, he quotes
a grammar which DOES say it applies to things. Maybe you can explain
this confusing treatment of the Rule.
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