Date: Mon Aug 24 1998 - 02:17:08 EDT
While in Bible class on what would be yesterday now, a question was raised
whether Martin Luther include the word alone in Romans 3:28. It seems that he
did from a source that I had read. I would like to know if there is any
justification for including the word alone in Romans 3:28. If there is, what
would that justification be? Is it based primarily on interpretation?
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