From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Mon Aug 24 1998 - 09:55:09 EDT
At 06:11 PM 8/24/98, you wrote:
>On Mon 24 Aug 98 (02:17:08), firstname.lastname@example.org wrote:
>>I would like to know
>> if there is any justification for including the word alone in Romans
>> 3:28. If there is, what would that justification be? Is it based
>> primarily on interpretation?
No- there is no textual justification for including "allein"- Luther here
(and in several places) simply allowed his theology to influence his
Thus, yes, "alone" is an interpretative move.
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