Re: The word alone in Romans 3:28

From: Christopher Hutson (
Date: Mon Aug 24 1998 - 10:46:08 EDT

Matthew and David,

The text you present of Luther's translation of Rom 3:28 seems like a
straightforward rendering of the Greek to me.

"So we conclude that a person is justified through faith alone without
works of the law."

I see nothing in Luther or in the Greek about "word only," and I am
confused really about the original question. What exactly was the
proposal in your Sunday School class yesterday? Was this an idea
expressed in his commentary on Romans? I have only an abridged
edition of that at hand. Perhaps you can check Luther's commentary on
Romans and see if he made some such point.

Hope this helps.


Christopher R. Hutson
          Hood Theological Seminary
          Salisbury, NC 28144

>From: "One of the McKays" <>
>To: Biblical Greek <>
>Subject: Re: The word alone in Romans 3:28
>Date: Mon, 24 Aug 1998 21:59:02 +1000
>G'day Mathew You asked:
>... whether Martin Luther include the word "alone" in Romans 3:28 I
>like to know if there is any justification for including the word
alone in
>Romans 3:28.
>Here is the 1984 edition of Luther's Bible in loco:
>So halten wir nun dafčr, daž der Mensch gerecht
>wird ohne des Gesetzes Werke, allein durch den Glauben.
>Does anyone read German? I am guessing that "ohne" is equivalent to
>or "alone."
>Am I right?
>David McKay

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