Participle in Matt. 27:35

From: yochanan bitan (
Date: Mon Mar 01 1999 - 06:11:25 EST

> Matthew's construction seems weaker than Mark's - and this, at a crucial
(sorry) moment
> in the passion narrative. I accept that Matthew had Mark in front of
him. So
> why the weaker expression? Or is this attendant circumstance participle
> Matthean trait?
> Don Larsen

Greek narration uses participles and finite verbs to 'texture' a
Aorist participles and aorist indicative verbs may interchange and may
refer to the exact same events and sequencing.
But the aorist finite verb is the thematic node of the sentence and the
aorist participles are 'demoted' from that node. Your sense of 'weaker' is
correct as far as that goes. it is thematically demoted.
such 'texturing' is normal Greek and not Matthean.
HOWEVER, the lack of such texturing often occurs in the synoptics and may
reflect semitizing greek either from sources or a stylistically
less-nuanced greek.
randall buth

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