From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Mar 29 1999 - 13:19:07 EST
At 23:19 28/03/99, you wrote:
>Can anyone tell me the reason for the translation of PROGINOSKW as
>"foreordained" in 1 Pet 1:20, when it is translated "foreknow" in many
>other places? (1 Pet 1:2, Rom 8, Rom 11:2) Don't worry about appearing to
>be Calvinist or Arminian, I just want to know what the nature of PROGINOSKW
>is, and how this may support either view. Is Peter's usage unique? Or is
>it used similar ways in other literature?
1 P. 1:20 is a _passive_ participle, as against your other examples:
1 Pet 1:2, Rom 8, Rom 11:2.
The first is a noun, the others are active,
Of this verb in the passive,
Pass. of Christ 1 Pt 1:20.÷Know from time past (Jos., Bell. 6, 8) Ac 26:5.
The 'big' LSJ has:
Pass., <greek snipped> judged beforehand to have done
wrong, Dem. 29.58, cf. Inscr.DŽlos 502
ti=Inscr.DŽlos A 12(iii B.C.).
Hope this is of help
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
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