From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Jun 17 1999 - 13:34:07 EDT
Steven Cox wrote:
> Thanks for comment on statistical significance.
> Not able to locate ref to plural of SATAN[AS] in PMG. (explains why Bauer
> doesn't mention it, I wonder if Daniel Riano's dictionary does?)
> But the dating of the following in Hebrew/Aramaic means the plural option
> was live in NT background: Book of Enoch: 40.7 DSS: 1QH fragments 4.6; 45.3;
> Formulary of Blessings, Talmud: Ber. 60b; Shab. 39b
> PS Also I'm told in early portions of a traditional Jewish prayerbook (now
> how do I check this one?) and later Mandean literature ("Right Ginza 279.4")
I don't have the time right now to look at/up these texts, but my guess is that the
plural indicates human slanderers/adversaries. Not every reference to SATANAS or
DIABOLOS in biblical literature is to the supermundane.
Or am I missing your point?
-- Jeffrey B. Gibson 7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A Chicago, Illinois 60626 e-mail firstname.lastname@example.org
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