From: Carlton Winbery (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Aug 10 1999 - 19:23:32 EDT
Russell Moody wrote;
>Being new to this arena, I am a little usure as to the format for opening
>discussions on different subjects. Are Greek words transliterated for
>discussion? Bear with me please...
>In my training I attempt to establish a discourse analysis of the text with
>which I am working (Cottrell and Turner)--
>In Philippians 1:27 'Movon' seems to function in a curios manner. Can
>anyone help me to establish the significance of such a pointed usage of
>NIV-- whatever happens
I have not seen an answer to this question so I thought I would answer.
The b-Greek home page (http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek) has a faq that
explains the transliteration scheme used by most on b-Greek. I recommend it
because it is easy to learn and use.
The adjective MONON Phil. 1:27 is an adjective. Adjectives function in four
different ways in Greek. Attributive, substantival, predicative, or
adverbially. MONON (lex. MONOS) is in the accusative case which is the case
used when in the rare situation the adjective does function adverbially. In
fact PRWTON was so often used adverbially that most lexicons list it as an
adverb. An example close to the one in Phil. is Gal 1:23, MONON AKOUONTES
HSAN . . . "Only, they were hearing that . . ." In Phil. 1:27 it means
something like "Only this is to be a concern.
Any way you translate it, it is an adjective used adverbially.
Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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