Re: 1 Cor 14:34 -- LALEIN

From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Wed Sep 08 1999 - 13:32:50 EDT

At 05:11 PM 9/8/99 +0200, you wrote:

>1 Cor 14:34
>I interpret the infinitive present tense LALEIN as meaning "be talking,"
>and not as "talking."

Actually- your translation would require a present participle or present
tense verb... the infinitive really needs to be translated with "to talk" or
"to speak".
Now why Paul forbids women to speak is really not because he was anti-woman-
but, for a simple historical reality... to wit- churches, like synagogues,
divided the men on one side and the women on the other. Imagine, if you
will, women on one side of a house asking their husbands on the other side
of the house about what the speaker is talking about while the speaker is
talking! what a racket! Paul, thus, simply requires the women to remain
silent during the sermon and ask their questions when they get home- so they
dont disrupt the procedures. No need here to rescue Paul from misogynism.
Further, hs is not saying that women should not speak (preach)- for he
presumes they do just that in 1 Cor 11. (rather a long answer for a short
question- sorry).

>What tense would Paul have used if he had meant to
>forbid any talking/speaking?

I think the aorist.



Jim West, ThD
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