From: David Roe (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Sep 08 1999 - 11:11:39 EDT
I'm a baby-Greek who has appreciated lurking the past few weeks. I
hesitate to solicit help, being unlikely able to return it, and I
hesitate to pose this particular case because of the perhaps
strongly-differing theological views on it. Never-the-less...
1 Cor 14:34
AhI GUNAIKES EN TAIS EKKLHSIAIS SIGATWSAN OU GAP EPITREPETAI AUTAIS
I interpret the infinitive present tense LALEIN as meaning "be talking,"
and not as "talking." What tense would Paul have used if he had meant to
forbid any talking/speaking?
Thankful for your help,
D. W. Roe
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